Tuesday, July 29, 2008

One that I just don't quite get

1 John 3:4 Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law.

Sin is the transgression of the law. I get that.

There aren't too many Christians these days that wouldn't be willing to tell anyone that will listen that homosexuality is a sin, and rightly so. Clearly homosexuality is against God's law.

And therein lies the problem.

"We're not under the law anymore, we're under grace." How many times have you heard that? How many times have you said that? "We're not under the law anymore, we're under grace." Well, if we aren't under the law anymore, then how is it even possible that homosexuality is considered a sin?

Let me explain.

It seems it's sheik to say these days that, "We're not under the law anymore, we're under grace." Yet I actually agree with this notion quite a bit. Those that have accepted Jesus Christ as Lord and Savior are not under the law anymore. Their sins are covered by the blood of Son of God. Now they are under the conviction and direction of the Holy Spirit (of course we have to ask, "What standard does the Holy Spirit use?") to walk in the way of and abide with Jesus. Besides, the law is set-up specifically law breakers, not for those that obey the law.

1 Timothy 1:9 Knowing this, that the law is not made for a righteous man, but for the lawless and disobedient, for the ungodly and for sinners, for unholy and profane, for murderers of fathers and murderers of mothers, for manslayers,

But what law?

Nowhere in the 10 Commandments can one specifically find a prohibition against homosexuality, or having an affair with one's aunt. Nor does the 10 Commandments make mention of bestiality. I think the 7th Commandment is fairly clear: "Thou shalt not commit adultery. " - Exodus 20:14. In fact, the word used here for adultery means just that, "to commit adultery, always with wife of another" - see Strongs #H5003.

Well, that's confusing. If sin is the transgression of the law and yet I can't find a prohibition against homosexuality in the 10 Commandments, then how in the world can homosexuality be a sin?

Is it something I might find in the Mosaic law? You know, that law that was ' just for the Jews.' Well, after a very brief search I found this one for homosexuality:

Leviticus 20:13 If a man also lie with mankind, as he lieth with a woman, both of them have committed an abomination: they shall surely be put to death; their blood [shall be] upon them.

I found this one that prohibits having an affair with one's aunt:

Leviticus 20:20 And if a man shall lie with his uncle's wife, he hath uncovered his uncle's nakedness: they shall bear their sin; they shall die childless.

I found this one that says something extremely negative about bestiality:

Leviticus 20:15 And if a man lie with a beast, he shall surely be put to death: and ye shall slay the beast.

How then can something not mentioned in the 10 Commandments, and yet mentioned in a law that apparently has nothing to do with Gentiles but "Jews" only, be considered sin? Is it because, as the pat answer seems to be, it's something that was "reiterated" in the "New" Testament?

Few men marry their sisters. Why is that considering there is no prohibition of a man marrying his sister in the "New" Testament? Could it be that's because it's found in the Mosaic law?

People will say and do just about anything to prove that we aren't under the "law" anymore but use that very "law" to conveniently attack a position in an argument they feel quite passionately about.

Yet it is these very arguments that dismantle the very positions they hold about the law and grace.

Whenever I read the story of the woman caught in adultery in John 8 I try to imagine for a second that it was me caught in the very act of doing a sin worthy of death by stoning. I try to imagine Jesus saying to me, "David, where are your accusers at? Has no man condemned you?"

Jesus came to show us the Father....everything about the Father. His goodness, His mercy, His grace and tenderness. He came to show that to me, and He came to show that in every sinner. Jesus uses the law to show us our weaknesses and our propensity to sin, yet at the same time He doesn't condemn us.

Do we have license to sin? God forbid. Do we have complete freedom to pick and choose which of God's laws we will choose to follow? Sure we do. If we choose the road that's wide and that leads to destruction God will not stop us. Does that mean He stops loving us? God forbid.

2 comments:

Anonymous said...

David, the reason you don't get it is because most Christians today are trying to muscle their way into a covenant that doesn't even apply to them anyway. Anything after that shouldn't and doesn't make sense.

Think about it, they repeatedly proclaim that the first covenant was with the Jews, so it never applied to them and it was a just a sign between God and the Jews, His chosen people "at that time".

The new covenant was made with the House of Israel and the House of Judah (Jer 31:31 & Heb 8:8) as well. Does that apply to Christians who refuse to believe they ARE Israel?

You Are Israel said...

I appreciate your comments very much. It is more than a little distressing that Christians of today do not understand that they aren't separate from the old Israelite nation and religion of the Old Testament, on the contrary, they should run to embrace the notion that they have been included in them through the blood of the Lamb of God.

"For I give you good doctrine, forsake ye not my law." - Proverbs 4:2